Model PC-PNDT CBT MCQ Test Paper and Short answer questions with answers

Model PCPNDT CBT exam paper : (50 Marks: 1 mark for each question)
(There are four alternative options for every question. Choose only one most appropriate option.)
Answers at the end of the Question paper

Q1.If the frequency of sound is between 20 Hz and 20 kHz, what is it called?
(A) x-rays
(B) audible sound
(C) ultrasound
(D) infrasound
(E) supersonic

Q2.The term hertz denotes
(A) strength of the ultrasound waves
(B) the distance that ultrasound waves travel through a medium
(C) the fraction of time that the transducer is transmitting a pulse
(D) cycles per second
(E) the pressure or height of a wave

Q3.What direction is the motion of particles in a longitudinal wave
(A) motion of particles is parallel to the axis of wave propagation
(B) motion of particles is perpendicular to the axis of wave propagation
(C) motion of particles travels counter-clockwise ellipse to the axis of wave propagation
(D) motion of particles travels to the surface vibrating particles
(E) motion of particles travels clockwise circle to the axis of wave propagation

Q4.The placenta is considered too thick when it measures:
a. 4 mm
b. 4 cm
c. 8 mm
d. 3.5 cm

Q5.What three structures comprise the portal triad?
(A) portal vein, portal artery and common bile duct
(B) hepatic artery, portal vein and bile duct
(C) hepatic vein, portal artery and cystic duct
(D) hepatic artery, portal artery and bile duct
(E) hepatic duct, hepatic vein and common bile duct

Q6.Which of the following will long-standing cystic duct obstruction give rise to?
(A) porcelain gallbladder
(B) hydropic gallbladder
(C) septated gallbladder
(D) gallbladder septations
(E) gallbladder contraction

Q7.What is the normal thickness of the gallbladder wall?
(A) 15 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 5 mm
(E) 3 mm

Q8.Fetal heart rate is calculated in USG using

Q9.sonographic findings of hydatid liver cyst except
A.Anechoic mass containing some debris (hydatid sand)
B.“Water lily“ sign—wall of the endocyst seen floating within the pericyst
C.Comet tail reverberation artifact is seen posterior to the cyst
D.“Mother” cyst containing one or more smaller “daughter” cyst

Q10.Volume redistribution of liver is a sonographic feature seen in
A.Amebic abscess

Q11.Frog eye appearance seen in

Q12.The fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA) pulsatility index (PI) is a key parameter used in fetal middle cerebral arterial Doppler assessment. It is calculated by
A.PI = (PSV + EDV) / TAV
B.PI = (PSV - EDV) / TAV
C.PI = (PSV - TAV) / EDV
D.PI = (TAV - EDV) / PSV

Q13.Normal portal vein flow is
A.hepatofugal meaning blood flows away from the liver
B.hepatopetal meaning blood flows toward the liver
C.hepatofugal meaning blood flows towards the liver
D.B.hepatopetal meaning blood flows away from the liver

Q14.Sono-Hysterography utilizes what substance for the visualization of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes?
a. Saline
b. X-ray dye
c. Water
d. Betadine

Q15.Reverberation artifacts are a result of
(A) electronic noise
(B) improper time gain compensation (TGC) settings
(C) the presence of two or more strong reflecting surfaces
(D) duplication of a true reflector
(E) absence of echo information distal to a reflector

Q16.Beam steering is achieved in a linear phased array by
(A) mechanical motion
(B) electronic time-delay pulsing
(C) an acoustic lens
(D) dynamic focusing

Q17.In the fetus, much of the blood bypasses the liver by traveling through which structure?
(A) foramen ovale
(B) ductus venosus
(C) ductus arteriosus
(D) ligamentum venosum

Q18.Polyhydramnios is most commonly associated with what finding?
(A) insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
(B) duodenal atresia
(C) idiopathic
(D) micrognathia
(E) fetal demise

Q19.The best examples of specular reflectors are the following except
B.renal parenchyma
C.liver capsule
D.gallbladder walls

Q20.Which of the following indicates early pregnancy failure?
A.Crown-Rump Length 4 mm or lesser and No Heartbeat on TVS
B.MSD greater or equal to 25mm with no yolk sac and no embryo on TAS
C.MSD greater or equal to 30mm with yolk sac and no embryo on TVS
D.Crown-Rump Length 5 mm or lesser and No Heartbeat on TAS

Q21.What is the average speed of ultrasound in human soft tissue at 37°C?
(A) 1,540 meters per second
(B) 1,540 miles per second
(C) 1,540 feet per second
(D) 154,000 meters per minute
(E) 1.54 centimeters per second

Q22.The period of an ultrasound wave is
(A) the time at which it is no longer detectable
(B) the number of times the wave is repeated per second
(C) the time to complete one cycle
(D) the speed of the wave
(E) the peak pressure of the wave

Q23.Which of the following statements is true about the portal vein?
(A) It is formed by the union of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct.
(B) It is only imaged sonographically when there is liver pathology.
(C) It is formed by the union of the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein.
(D) It is very pulsatile.
(E) It is commonplace for stones to form.

Q24.Sonographic measurements taken between the outer edge of the occipital bone to the outer margin of the skin is called
(A) nuchal fold
(B) nuchal translucency
(C) cisterna magna
(D) orbital distance
(E) cerebellar measurement

Q25.The optimal time to assess measurements for nuchal translucency is
(A) 6–12 weeks
(B) 4–5 weeks
(C) 14–16 weeks
(D) 11–14 weeks
(E) 6–14 weeks

Q26.Fetal anomalies associated with single umbilical artery are
A.Edward syndrome
B.Patau syndrome
D.All of the above

Q27.In a normal fetus, if the middle cerebral artery were sampled, one would expect to find which of the following?
(A) an increased S/D ratio
(B) a decreased S/D ratio
(C) retrograde flow
(D) absent flow
(E) has no change in S/D ratio

Q28.The pathological condition characterized by a benign ovarian tumor, right pleural effusions,and ascites is
(A) Meigs syndrome
(B) dysgerminoma
(C) Stein–Leventhal syndrome
(D) mucinous cystadenoma
(E) leiomyoma sarcoma

Q29.The components of biophysical profile (BPP) are
(A) fetal breathing, Doppler, non-stress test (NST), gross body movement, and amniotic fluid volume (AFV)
(B) placental grading, non-stress test (NST), gross body movement, and amniotic fluid volume (AFV)
(C) non-stress test (NST), Doppler, gross body movement, amniotic fluid volume (AFV), and fetal flexion/extension
(D) amniotic fluid volume (AFV), gross body movement, fetal flexion/extension, fetal breathing,and non-stress test (NST)
(E) BPD, AC, FL, and non-stress test (NST)

Q30.Sonographic findings of acute appendicitis except
A.Noncompressible, blind-ended tube that measures more than 6 mm in diameter from outer wall to outer wall
B.Echogenic structure within the lumen of the appendix (appendicolith)
C.Gut signature
D.Hyperemic flow within the wall of the inflamed appendix

Q31.Which of the following is least likely to be true of dermoid tumors?
(A) may cast an acoustic shadow
(B) encountered more in women over 40 years
(C) also called benign cystic teratoma
(D) most common benign germ cell tumor in the female
(E) unilateral in about 80% of cases

Q32.What is the measurement of the normal adult ovaries?
(A) 3 × 2 × 2 cm
(B) 3 × 2 × 2 mm
(C) 4 × 4 × 2 cm
(D) 4 × 2 × 2 mm
(E) 7 × 4 × 3 mm

Q33.The Doppler effect creates
(A) change in frequency or Doppler shift when the reflector moves relative to the transducer
(B) increase in frequency as the reflector moves away from the transducer
(C) maximum frequency shift at 90°
(D) requires angle correction for frequency measurements

Q34.What is the most common twin zygosity?
(A) conjoined twins
(B) monochorionic/diamniotic
(C) dichorionic/diamniotic
(D) monochorionic/monoamniotic

Q35.Ultrasound have typical properties except
A.Transducers have fixed frequencies
B.Continuous wave ultrasound have the transmitter and receiver the same is a longitudinal wave
D.Unit of frequency is Hertz

Q36.Which of the following best describes the “twin peak” sign?
(A) also known as the beta sign
(B) a triangular projection of chorion into the dividing membrane
(C) a sonographic predictor for dizygotic twins
(D) both B and C
(E) all of the above

Q37. False about piezoelectric effect
A. convert electric energy to mechanical energy and vice versa
B. transducers are not affected by temperature
C. lead zirconate titanate is the active element
D. The piezoelectric material is the material that produces diagnostic ultrasound

Q38.An unexplained increase in maternal serum triple screen (MSAFP3) can cause what third trimester complications?
(A) premature rupture of membranes
(B) placental abruption
(C) preterm labor
(D) both A and B
(E) all of the above

Q39.The region of the ultrasound beam from the focus to beam diversion is called which of the following?
(A) Fraunhofer zone
(B) Fresnel zone
(C) focal zone
(D) divergence zone
(E) acoustic focus

Q40.Which of the following best defines intrauterine fetal demise?
(A) blighted ovum
(B) absent fetal heart tone after 20 weeks of gestation
(C) no fetal movement
(D) missed abortion
(E) all of the above

Q41.False about Propagation speed
A.Propagation speed (c) is defined as the speed at which a sound wave travels through a medium
B.Sound at different frequency, travels at the different speed through any particular medium
C.Propagation speeds tend to be the fastest in solids
D.The units for propagation speed are meters per second (m/s) or millimeters per microsecond (mm/µs)

Q42.Enlarged nuchal translucency is often associated with all of the following except
(A) aneuploidy
(B) Down’s syndrome and cystic hygroma
(C) Turner’s syndrome
(D) congenital heart disease
(E) rhombencephalon

Q43.The most common chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly is
(A) trisomy 21
(B) trisomy 18
(C) trisomy 13
(D) Turner’s syndrome
(E) trisomy 9

Q44.Ectopic pregnancy is defined as
(A) pregnancy in the fallopian tubes
(B) pregnancy in the peritoneal space
(C) pregnancy outside of the uterus
(D) pregnancy in the uterine cavity
(E) pregnancy outside the endometrial cavity

Q45.What is the most accurate method for establishing estimated date of confinement (EDC)?
(A) first-trimester ultrasound
(B) second-trimester ultrasound
(C) last menstrual period (LMP)
(D) Angele’s rule
(E) fundal height

Q46.The definition of “low lying placenta” in the third trimester is
(A) placental edge >3 cm from the internal os
(B) placental edge <2 cm from the internal os
(C) placental edge <3 cm from the internal os
(D) placental edge in lower uterine segment
(E) placenta edge >20 cm from the internal os

Q47.In what stage of the menstrual cycle would be an ideal time to evaluate the endometrium for a polyp?
(A) menstruation phase
(B) follicular phase
(C) proliferative phase
(D) secretory phase
(E) all of the above

Q48.What is another name for polycystic ovarian syndrome?
(A) Stein–Leventhal syndrome
(B) Sertoli–Leydig cell
(C) Brenner’s tumor
(D) chocolate cyst
(E) Mittelschmerz

Q49.Which of the following statements regarding leiomyoma is false?
(A) calcifies and attenuates the ultrasound beam
(B) may mimic a myometrial contraction
(C) normally increases in size after menopause
(D) distorts the endometrial cavity
(E) derives from the muscle of the uterus

Q50.All the following are true about IUGR except
A.IUGR is defined as an estimated fetal weight (EFW) that is below the 10th percentile at a given gestational age.
B.IUGR typically results from the inadequate transfer of nutrients from the mother to the fetus.
D.Increased HC/AC ratio

MCQ Answers & Explanation 
1. Ans. (B) Audible sound range from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
2. Ans. (D) Hertz (Hz) is the internationally accepted term for cycles per second (cps).
3. Ans. (A) Particle motion is parallel to (or in the same direction of) the axis of wave propagation
4. Ans. (B) 4 cm
5. Ans. (B) The three structures that make up the portal triad are the hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile duct.
6. Ans. (B) Hydropic gallbladder. Complete obstruction of the neck of the gallbladder or the cystic duct leads to hydrops or mucocele of the gallbladder. In this condition, the bile within the gallbladder is absorbed and replaced by a mucoid secretion from the lining of the gallbladder.
7. Ans. (E) The normal thickness of the gallbladder wall is 3 mm. Thicker walls suggest a pathologic condition that may be biliary in nature.
8. Ans. D.M-mode
9. Ans. C. Enhancement artifact is seen posterior to the cyst
10. Ans. C.Cirrhosis
11. Ans. C. Anencephaly
12. Ans. B. PI = (PSV - EDV) / TAV
13. Ans. B. hepatopetal meaning blood flows toward the liver
14. Ans. a. Saline
15. Ans. (C) Reverberation artifacts are present when two or more strong reflectors are located within the beam with decreasing intensity. Reverberation artifacts occur between the face of the transducer and a specular reflector.
16. Ans. (B) Electronic time-delay pulsing. The delay pulsing of the array elements can be used to form a wavefront directed at different angles. Pulsing can also be used to focus the beam at different depths
17. Ans. (B) In the fetus, oxygenated blood travels from the umbilical veins through the ductus venosus, bypassing the liver. This blood then enters the inferior vena cava. The blood that enters the liver mixes with the portal system. Once the fetus is born, the ductus venosus closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum of the liver
18. Ans. (C) Of the cases with polyhydramnios, 60% are idiopathic, 20% are structural, and 20% are maternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
19. Ans. B. renal parenchyma
20. Ans. B. MSD greater or equal to 25mm with no yolk sac and no embryo on TAS.Diagnostic Findings of Early Pregnancy Failure are CRL of 7 mm without a heartbeat and MSD of 25 mm without an embryonic pole
21. Ans. (A) Velocity of ultrasound transmitted through a medium depends on the properties of the medium: (1) temperature, (2) elasticity, and (3) density. The speed of ultrasound varies with temperature. However, temperature/velocity in human soft tissue can usually be ignored because body temperature is usually constant within a narrow range, for example, 94°F (low) to 106°F (high). The velocity of ultrasound in soft tissue at 37°C or 98.6°F (core body temperature) is 1,540 m/s.
22. Ans. (C) The time taken to complete one cycle (one wavelength)
23. Ans. (C) The splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join together to form the portal vein. The junction of the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein occurs posterior to the neck of the pancreas
24. Ans. (A) Nuchal fold measurements are performed in the second trimester and are measured from the outer edge of the occipital bone to the outer margin of the skin
25. Ans. (D) The optimal time to assess measurements for nuchal translucency is between 11 to 14 weeks
26. Ans. (D). All of the above
27. Ans. (A) In response to hypoxia, the fetus reroutes blood to the brain in a brain-sparing effort. The middle cerebral artery is normally of higher resistance, but it will decrease to compensate for the increased blood flow and brain-sparing effort.
28. Ans. (A) Meigs’ syndrome is define as a triad of a benign ovarian fibroma, ascites, and pleural effusion with the effusion is most frequently on the right.
29. Ans. (D) Biophysical profile (PPP) is a test used to evaluate fetal well-being using a scoring system. This involves a combination of ultrasound and non-stress test with five variables. Each of these five variables is given a score of 0 or 2, depending if the specific criteria are met.
30. Ans. (C). Gut signature
31. Ans. (B) Dermoid cysts are more common in younger women and they have a variable sonographic appearance ranging from completely anechoic to hyperechoic.
32. Ans. (A) Normal adult ovarian size is 3 × 2 × 2 cm.
33. Ans. (A) The Doppler effect is a change in frequency relative to motion. The frequency received is higher or lower than the transmitted frequency depending on whether the motion is toward or away from the transducer.
34. Ans. (C) Seventy-five percent of twins are dizygotic.
35. Ans. (B). Pulse wave ultrasound have single crystal which acts as the transmitter and receiver Continuous wave ultrasound has two crystals one for transmission and one for receiver
36. Ans. (D) The twin peak is formed when the placental tissue migrates between the chorionic layers. This is 94–100% predictive of dizygotic twins
37. Ans. (B). ultrasound transducers are never heat sterilized. When necessary, transducers must be cold sterilized using either a glutaraldehyde solution, such as Cidex or Metricide, or a non–glutaraldehyde-based solution, such as ortho-phthalaldehyde
38. Ans. (E) When the increased AFP is unexplained, it is thought to be because of an increased placental transfer of AFP. The placental dysfunction can occur with various placental abnormalities that may be associated with certain third trimester complications.
39. Ans. (A) Fraunhofer zone. The far zone is also known as the Fraunhofer zone; this is the region from the focus and extending to beam diversion.
40. Ans. (B) Intrauterine fetal demise (IUFD) is defined as an absence of fetal heart tones after 20 weeks. A blighted ovum does not have an embryo (anembryonic pregnancy). Missed abortion is a demise embryo that has not aborted in the first trimester. A fetus can be in a resting mode without movement but demonstrate a fetal heart tone.
41. Ans. (B). All sound, regardless of its frequency, travels at the same speed through any particular medium
42. Ans. (E) The cystic structure in the posterior aspect of the embryonic head represents the rhombencephalon. It is a normal structure seen between 7–9 weeks which later forms the fourth ventricle.
43. Ans. (C) Thirty to fifty percent of fetuses with holoprosencephaly have chromosomal abnormalities, the most common being trisomy 13
44. Ans. (E) Ectopic pregnancy is defined as any pregnancy outside of the endometrial cavity. Although 90% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, it can occur in other locations such as the abdomen and ovaries. Ectopic pregnancy can occur in the uterus such as a cervical or a hysterotomy scar from a previous cesarean section
45. Ans. (A) The crown rump length (CRL) is the most accurate because fetal growth is very uniform and is rarely affected by pathological disorders. The choices C and D are based on human memory of the maternal LMP, which assumes ovulation on day 14.
46. Ans. (B) If the placenta is greater than 2 cm from the internal os, a vaginal delivery is considered safe
47. Ans. (C) In the proliferative phase, the lining is thick, but the internal component is hypoechoic. This allows for the echogenic polyp to be seen. In the secretory phase, the entire endometrial lining is echogenic and will mask a polyp.
48. Ans. (A) Patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (Stein-Leventhal syndrome) usually present with amenorrhea, infertility, hirsutism and with multiple small immature follicles of the ovaries. Ovarian agenesis is an imperfect development or absent of the ovaries.
49. Ans. (C) Leiomyomas (fibroids) are benign tumors of the muscle of the uterus, which are stimulated by estrogen. After menopause, the fibroid normally decreased in size due to the decrease in estrogen. An increase in size of fibroids after menopause is suggestive of leiomyosarcoma.
50. Ans. (D). decreased HC/AC ratio

PCPNDT exam Short Questions paper
Write short answers for the following questions (10x5=50)
(Draw a neatly labeled diagram when necessary)

Q1. What are bioeffects? How to measure in Ultrasound Practice?
Model Answer:
The biological effects of ultrasound refer to the potential adverse effects the imaging modality has on human tissue. These are primarily via two main mechanisms: thermal and mechanical. Despite this, ultrasound has a remarkable record for patient safety with no significant adverse bioeffects reported in the literature.
Thermal effects
Due to the law of the conservation of energy, all of the sound energy attenuated by tissues must be converted to other forms of energy. The majority of this is turned into heat. As such, it is possible for ultrasound to raise tissue temperature to up to 1.5°C. For sensitive tissues (eg. fetal) this rise in temperature may have deleterious effects if present for an extended period of time.
The thermal index is a calculation used to predict the maximum temperature elevation in tissues as a result of the attenuation of sound.
No effects have been observed thermal index (TI) values of less than 2
Mechanical effects
The mechanical bioeffects of ultrasound refers to damage caused by the actual oscillation of the sound wave on tissue. The most common is referred to as cavitation and is caused by the oscillation of small gas bubbles within the ultrasound field. In certain circumstances, these bubbles may grow in size or collapse generating very high energies to adjacent tissue.
The mechanical index was developed to assist in evaluating the likelihood of cavitation to occur.Below a mechanical index (MI) of about 0.4, the physical conditions do not favor bubble.

Q2.Write Sonographic features of Cirrhosis of Liver?
Model Answer:
1.Volume redistribution-A ratio of the caudate lobe width to the right lobe width (C/RL) value of 0.65 is considered indicative of cirrhosis
2.Coarse echotexture-Increased echogenicity and coarse echotexture are frequent observations in diffuse liver disease
3.Nodular surface-Irregularity of the liver surface during routine scanning has been appreciated as a sign of cirrhosis when
the appearance is gross or when ascites is present.
4.Nodules: regenerative and dysplastic-Regenerating nodules tend to be isoechoic or hypoechoic with a thin, echogenic border that corresponds to fibrofatty connective Tissue dysplastic nodules or adenomatous hyperplastic nodules are larger than regenerating nodules (diameter of 10 mm) and are considered premalignant.
5.Portal hypertension: ascites, splenomegaly, and varices

Q3.Write sonographic appearance of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Model Answer:
Pathologically, HCC occurs in the following three forms:
• Solitary tumor
• Multiple nodules
• Diffuse infiltration
The sonographic appearance of HCC is variable. The masses may be hypoechoic, complex, or echogenic. Most small (<5 cm) HCCs are hypoechoic , corresponding histologically
to a solid tumor without necrosis. A thin, peripheral hypoechoic halo, which corresponds to a fibrous capsule, is seen most often in small HCCs. With time and increasing size, the masses tend to become more complex and inhomogeneous as a result of necrosis and fibrosis . Calcification is uncommon. Small tumors may appear diffusely hyperechoic, secondary to fatty metamorphosis or sinusoidal dilation , making them indistinguishable from focal fatty infiltration,cavernous hemangiomas, and lipomas. Intratumoral fat also occurs in larger masses; because it tends to be focal, it is unlikely to cause confusion in diagnosis.

Q4.Sonographic features of cholangitis?

Model Answer:
The sonographic findings of bacterial cholangitis include the following :
• Dilation of the biliary tree
• Choledocholithiasis and possibly sludge
Dilation of the biliary tree, when present, can be diagnosed by sonography. A CBD diameter greater than 6 mm is considered abnormal in most patients. Subtle dilation of the intrahepatic
biliary tree is a frequently overlooked finding that should be specifically sought. This includes use of subcostal oblique scanning of the porta hepatis to assess the caliber of the right and left hepatic ducts, as well as evaluation of the CBD, which may measure normal but still show a somewhat “tense” or distended morphology. Dilation of the biliary tree is seen in 75% of patients. The obstructive stone is usually lodged in the distal CBD but may be mobile, causing intermittent obstruction. Air is rarely seen within the ducts; thus its presence suggests a choledochoenteric fistula in the absence of previous biliary manipulation
Q5.Role of Ultrasound in acute pancreatitis?
Model Answer:
Role Of Ultrasound
1.Detect gallstones as a cause of acute pancreatitis
2.Detect bile duct dilation and obstruction
3.Diagnose unsuspected acute pancreatitis or confirm diagnosis of acute pancreatitis
4.Guide aspiration and drainage
Pancreatic echogenicity typically decreases in patients who have acute pancreatitis because of interstitial edema. In some patients, echogenicity is normal.
Enlargement of the pancreas is almost universal in acute pancreatitis. Unfortunately, enlargement may be difficult to judge, because pancreatic size before the onset of pancreatitis is usually unknown and varies widely. It seems reasonable, therefore, to use 22mm (mean plus 3 standard deviations) as the upper limit of normal pancreatic thickness.
The classic finding of decreased gland echogenicity is present in only 44% of patients. .Focal hypoechoic regions are noted in some patients.
The least subjective, most common, and thus most useful finding is pancreatitis-associated inflammation Extrapancreatic inflammatory changes may be detected even when the pancreatic contour is normal and the pancreas is not obviously enlarged. Pancreatic inflammation
is typically hypoechoic or anechoic and conforms to a known retroperitoneal or peritoneal space.

Q6.Write Sonographic Findings of Papillary Necrosis?
Model Answer:
Sonographic Findings of Papillary Necrosis
1.Swollen pyramids
2.Papillary cavitation
3.Adjacent clubbed calyx
4.Sloughed papilla in collecting system that can calcify and simulate a stone
5.Sloughed papilla may cause obstruction

Q7.Write about mimics of renal calculi?

Model Answer:
Entities That Mimic Renal Calculi
1.Intrarenal gas
2.Renal artery calcification
3.Calcified sloughed papilla
4.Calcified transitional cell tumor
5.Alkaline-encrusted pyelitis
6.Encrusted calcification of ureteral stent

Q8.Write short notes on Omphalocele ?
Model Answer:
The evidence of persistent herniation of the bowel, and potentially other abdominal organs, into the base of the umbilical cord leads to the diagnosis of an omphalocele. An omphalocele is located within the midline of the abdomen. The umbilical cord will insert into this mass. The entire content is contained and covered by peritoneum and amnion.Ascites is often noted within an omphalocele, as well as within the abdomen of the fetus. Ascites may be helpful in demarcating the contents of the mass. It is important to note whether the mass contains liver, as a poorer prognosis corresponds with this type of omphalocele.
The sonographic appearance of an omphalocele is that of a midline abdominal mass that contains bowel, liver, or other abdominal organs . Omphalocele has a more significant risk for heart defects and chromosomal anomalies than gastroschisis. Trisomy 18 and trisomy 13, Turner syndrome, and Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome have all been linked with omphaloceles.
Pentalogy of Cantrell is another group of anomalies that includes an omphalocele, along with ectopic cordis, cleft sternum, anterior diaphragmatic defect, and pericardial defects.

Q9.Guidelines for Nuchal Translucency Measurement?
Model Answer:
1. The margins of the NT edges must be clear enough for proper placement of the calipers.
2. The fetus must be in the midsagittal plane.
3. The image must be magnified so that it is filled by the fetal head, neck, and upper thorax.
4. The fetal neck must be in a neutral position, not flexed and not hyperextended.
5. The amnion must be seen as separate from the NT line.
6. The (+) calipers on the ultrasound must be used to perform the NT measurement.
7. Electronic calipers must be placed on the inner borders of the nuchal space with none of the horizontal crossbar itself protruding into the space.
8. The calipers must be placed perpendicular to the long axis of the fetus.
9. The measurement must be obtained at the widest space of the NT.

Q10.Write sonographic appearance of a cystic teratoma?

Model Answer:
The sonographic appearance of a cystic teratoma has been well documented, and it has most often been described as a complex or partially cystic mass in the ovary that includes one or more echogenic structures.
These echogenic components may produce posterior shadowing .The “tip of the iceberg” sign denotes the sonographic appearance of the mass when only the anterior element of the mass is seen, while the greater part of the mass is obscured by shadowing. This occurs as a result of complete attenuation of the sound beam by the dense tissue components of the mass.Often, dermoid tumors contain a “dermoid plug.”The dermoid plug contains various tissues that will be a source of posterior shadowing. The “dermoid mesh” has been used to describe the visualization of hair within the mass. Hair will appear as numerous linear interfaces within the cystic area of a dermoid. A fluid–fluid level may also be visualized, in which case there is a clear demarcation between serous fluid and sebum.